NOTE: By "covered put" we mean covered by a short position, not a cash-secured put.
I have the following question from my SIE textbook:
If a customer had a large cash position and was interested in purchasing stock at prices below where they are today, and possibly generating some income in the process, an option strategy would be to
A. write covered puts that are currently out of the money.
B. write uncovered calls that are currently out of the money.
C. buy out-of-the-money calls.
D. place a buy stop order below the market.
The answer was A. with the explanation: "Writing the puts would generate premium income. If the stock declines in value and the option is exercised, he will by the stock at a price that’s lower than where the market is at this moment. The short calls would force him to sell the shares if exercised. Buying out-of-the-money calls cost money, and the strike price would be higher than the market. The buy stop does not generate income"
I get why C,D are wrong. Both answers A and B have unlimited risk since a covered put doesn't protect from the short position you have, and the uncovered call requires the selling of shares you don't have. Both answers A and B will be profitable if the share price goes down (the OTM call premium). So what's wrong with B?