Reading The Intelligent Investor and came across a passage (pg 48) which I felt I couldn't fully grasp. I'd appreciate it if someone could explain it using simpler language:
Toward the end of 1971 it was possible to obtain 8% taxable interest on good medium-term corporate bonds, and 5.7% tax-free on good state or municipal securities. In the shorter-term field the investor could realize about 6% on U.S. government issues due in five years. In the latter case the buyer need not be concerned about a possible loss in market value, since he is sure of full repayment, including the 6% interest return, at the end of a comparatively short holding period. The DJIA at its recurrent price level of 900 in 1971 yields only 3.5%.
What is the "latter" case here? Is everything after "In the shorter-term" referring to the 5 year government bonds that have 6% interest? Also, are the "state and municipal securities" the same thing as the "government issues"? Contrasting the phrases "shorter-term" and "latter case" seems to indicate that the author is advocating for the 8% corporate bonds in one case and the government issues in the other, but I don't see any mention of the corporate bonds...