I saw this question.
Let's suppose one sells an asset for a $200,000 profit after holding it for 10 year but then immediately sinks the entire sale price into another asset. Is one still expected to pay the capital gains tax? What cash is one expected to pay the taxes from?
How do tax liabilities work in this scenario?
Capital gains tax when proceeds were immediately used for another investment
And I was wondering if the answer changes if the assest is exchanged for bitcoin instead of money. The asset was never converted into the currency of any country, but rather just exchanged for a new asset.