Reading around, I found that minority interest is defined as interest in a company controlled by a company other than the parent company.
Does that mean that anytime a company A becomes a shareholder of company B, those shares becomes part of minority interest? Does that include mutual funds as well? What's the point of this?
When I look at an income statement, I see that "net income" is equal to "net income to company" minus "minority interest in earnings". Looking at the cashflow statements, I see that the net income represented there is the net income to company minus minority interest in earnings. Where does the latter go? Surely, the minority owners don't get a share of the income.