Let's suppose that a british investor invests in a mutual fund whose underlying is in american dollars, but which is bought in pounds sterling. This means that the fund's managers convert the pounds to dollars to buy, and the opposite to sell.
But let's suppose there is an hyper-inflation in the UK, say, the same magnitude as in Germany after the WWI, therefore the pound would be almost 0 worth.
What would happen in that scenario with the UK investor if he wants to sell? Would the fund need to sell and convert the US dollars to an exorbitant amount of UK pounds? Would it be possible for the investor to receive US dollars instead?