If I owe money to the UK revenue, for say charges like HICBC (High Income Child Benefit Charge) or due to underpaid/owed tax in previous years, in some cases I can opt to have collected via a change in my tax code.
I live in Scotland, which has the following tax bands:
Band | Taxable income | Scottish tax rate |
---|---|---|
Personal Allowance | Up to £12,570 | 0% |
Starter rate | £12,571 to £14,732 | 19% |
Basic rate | £14,733 to £25,688 | 20% |
Intermediate rate | £25,689 to £43,662 | 21% |
Higher rate | £43,663 to £150,000 | 41% |
Top rate over | £150,000 | 46% |
https://www.gov.uk/scottish-income-tax
An adjustment to my tax code in this way will reduce my 'Personal Allowance'. So I will pay the 19% extra on the difference. E.g. If it's adjusted down by to £12,470, I will pay an extra £19 for the adjustment of that threshold.
My question is: When a tax band is adjusted in this way, do all the bands that you pay get revised down, i.e. are is the money reclaimed a combination of the difference at each threshold? E.g:
- 0% - £100 moves into 19% band.= £19
- 19% - £100 into 20% band = £1
- 20% - £100 into 21% band = £1
- 21% - £100 into 41% band = £20
- 41% - £100 into 46% band = £5
Or, to the latter bands remain fixed, and the claw bank is entirely from the reduction in your personal allowance?