Say you you invest x euros at t0 in a mutual fund through a European exchange. After ten years, at t1, the investment doubles to 2x euros.
Would you end up with the same amount of euros at t1 if you converted x euros into dollars at t0, purchased shares in the same mutual fund through an American exchange at t0, sold them for dollars at t1, and then exchanged them to euros at t1?
These two sources claim that indeed you would end up with exactly the same amount of 2x euros either way, but I don't understand why that is: