0

I need your guidance on this situation.

Example: A property is identified & planning to buy / register on my father's name.Partially property value may bear by my father & for balance amount which is shortfall, I am planning to get home loan.

Does the bank give home loan to me? (as per eligibility on salaried individual) or I need to get personal loan in this situation? or The property must be registered in my name to be eligible for loan?

Please guide me.

Improve this question
2
  • 3
    Please edit and add country tag
    – Dheer
    Commented Jul 11, 2016 at 9:38
  • I think it would be best to ask the bank!
    – Pete B.
    Commented Jul 11, 2016 at 12:56

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
1

Generally to get a home loan, the property must be in your name.

You can get a personal loan if eligible, else your father can get a personal loan with you as gatuntor.

Else register the property as joint ownership and get a home loan.

Improve this answer
1
  • Right. You can't authorize a lien on the property unless you have authority to sell it if it gets foreclosed upon. Either the borrower needs to be the owner, or you need to borrow against something else (probably at a higher interest rate).
    – keshlam
    Commented Aug 10, 2016 at 13:21

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .