Timeline for Selling house via estate agent vs selling property to developer, UK. Why price difference?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 27, 2018 at 16:34 | comment | added | Neil Slater | I have added the bounty to this answer, as I think it addresses the core "where does the £150k difference come from" in the question the best of the two answers. I am still communicating with the developer about their quote and may be able to self-answer if I get anything concrete. Thanks for your time. | |
| Jan 27, 2018 at 16:30 | history | bounty ended | Neil Slater | ||
| Jan 22, 2018 at 20:13 | comment | added | Beanluc | Professionals absolutely do calculate monetary values of risks. That's outside the scope of this question, though. | |
| Jan 22, 2018 at 16:14 | comment | added | Neil Slater | So according to this answer, the major risk preventing the developer taking on the property directly is in having committed their own capital (this is the same as saying it is about "cash flow" I think)? Is there a way to view that risk as a monetary value, in order to compare to the £150k? Or can it not really be assessed in that way? | |
| Jan 22, 2018 at 14:10 | history | answered | webdevduck | CC BY-SA 3.0 |