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Jul 20, 2016 at 2:22 comment added Ben Miller @JoeTaxpayer I think the OP would (did) still call it a 20 year mortgage, because if he got a 20 year mortgage in 2012, but arranged biweekly payments, it would be done in 2030 instead of 2032.
Jul 20, 2016 at 0:04 comment added JTP - Apologise to Monica @BenMiller - if one takes a 30 year mortgage, but bumps payment to biweekly, you get a new amortization. Say 24 years. Do you still call this a 30 year mortgage? Or is it a 24 yr biweekly?
Jul 19, 2016 at 12:01 comment added Ben Miller I think that the reason the mortgage ends in 2030 instead of 2032 is that the biweekly payments end up paying off the loan 2 years early.
Jul 19, 2016 at 11:03 history answered mhoran_psprep CC BY-SA 3.0