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May 3, 2020 at 21:27 comment added user44213 @simonb i added these details to my post.
May 2, 2020 at 22:24 comment added Simon B @TamaraMilanovic I have no idea why the mother is replying with apparently irrelevant case laws and examples.
May 2, 2020 at 21:50 comment added user45974 @SimonB sorry, i was going by what i knew from the Law SE version of this question before it was migrated and lost a load of comments.
May 2, 2020 at 16:56 comment added Simon B @Moo It all depends on what sort of lease this is. And so far, the OP hasn't enlightened us.
May 2, 2020 at 10:27 comment added user45974 @SimonB no, its not standard - a residential tenant under a standard tenancy agreement in England and Wales does not have the right or entitlement to sell the right of occupancy on to another party without the express permission and involvement of the landlord. Theres nothing to “sell” in a standard tenancy, theres no inherent value in a residential tenancy agreement for a third party to acquire.
May 1, 2020 at 14:27 comment added Rup Right, sorry I should have realised that's what you meant from 'ground rent'. To me the question sounds like it's a short residential tenancy and not leasehold in that sense.
May 1, 2020 at 14:24 comment added Simon B @Rup As a former leasehold tenant, I have sold on a residential long lease to someone else. It was done in the same way as selling a freehold property: through an estate agent. I did not need to ask permission of the freeholder. I assume this is standard with residential long leases in England & Wales.
May 1, 2020 at 14:12 comment added Rup I'd be surprised if residential leases could be sold on like that. At least in the UK this would be a lease 'assignment', and requires the landlord's consent unless expressly permitted in the original tenancy.
May 1, 2020 at 13:29 history answered Simon B CC BY-SA 4.0