Timeline for Is 0% credit card utilization worse than 1-20% credit card utilization for any reason other than pure statistics?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
4 events
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| Aug 28, 2011 at 18:33 | comment | added | Glorified Plumber | So I like this answer... I think it gives detailed descriptions of how credit utilization impacts ones credit, but, I think Duff's answer gets to the actual heart, of why 0% is considered more risky to the creditor than 0.01%. | |
| Aug 17, 2011 at 2:11 | comment | added | Glorified Plumber | So essentially, someone with 0% utilization could fit into many categories of "borrower" ranging from responsible and not using the card to completely irresponsible but not using the card. So... as a category, it represents a higher relative risk than those who roll in the 1-20% range (to borrow from Joe's article). | |
| Aug 16, 2011 at 19:14 | comment | added | user606723 | Besides, when it's the downside of using credit cards? There is none. It's all upside. | |
| Aug 16, 2011 at 15:31 | history | answered | Benjamin Chambers | CC BY-SA 3.0 |