What power/ownership rights would a person have if they owned greater than 50% exclusively with>50% of a corporation's non-voting preferred stocks with no voting rightsshares?

What power/ownership rights would a person have if they owned greater than 50% exclusively withof a corporation's preferred stocks, with no voting rights?

Would they own the company but have no say in it's direction? Are they liable for anything? I guess I'm curious if this has or can happen and what it would mean, functionally.

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asked Nov 13, 2018 at 19:18

user44273

What power/ownership rights would a person have if they owned greater than 50% exclusively with preferred stocks with no voting rights?

Would they own the company but have no say in it's direction? Are they liable for anything? I guess I'm curious if this has or can happen and what it would mean, functionally.

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What power/ownership rights would a person have if they owned greater than 50% exclusively with>50% of a corporation's non-voting preferred stocks with no voting rightsshares?

What power/ownership rights would a person have if they owned greater than 50% exclusively with preferred stocks with no voting rights?

What power would a person have if they owned >50% of a corporation's non-voting preferred shares?

What power/ownership rights would a person have if they owned greater than 50% exclusively with preferred stocks with no voting rights?