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To start, VAs are governed by the same body that oversees insurance, different from those who oversee, say, Mutual Funds and ETFs. This isn't bad, in and of itself, but it makes disclosure less than transparent. It's not like you can tell us the product, and I can just look it up, as I can the prospectus for an ETF. All that said, in theory, part of the ...

403b plans are used by school districts, colleges and universities, nonprofit hospitals, charitable foundations and the like for their employees while 401k plans are used by most everybody else. I would suspect that a school district etc can use a 401k plan instead of a 403b plan if it chooses to do so, but the reverse direction is most likely forbidden: a (...

I wrote a detailed answer about variable annuities on another question, but I want to include one specific situation where a variable annuity may be the right course of action. (For the sake of simplicity, I'm quoting directly from that answer): Three-quarters of US states protect variable annuity assets from creditors. Regular IRA's don't benefit from ...

No. The "I" stands for individual. Funds cannot be transferred between spouse's IRAs with 2 exceptions that I know. After death, the surviving spouse can take the funds into her name, or upon divorce, a judge can issue a QDRO directing such a transfer.

A variable annuity is a contract with an insurance company that invests your money in mutual funds. The annuity will provide payments to you either immediately or at a future date, for the rest of your life, guaranteeing that you won't outlive your assets. The death benefit guarantees that your beneficiary will receive at least the amount of your ...

If the distribution is actually a distribution that you then re-invest into your Roth IRA (as a contribution) then you should be able to just contribute to your spouse's IRA instead of your own, provided that she is eligible to contribute to an IRA, meaning either of you had enough earned income (but not too much) to contribute. It should be equivalent to ...

I think what you are looking at are absolute gain/loss over one year and annualized (CAGR) values. My take would be that fund X having lost 32% over one year has clocked a -ve CAGR over its entire lifetime (it is possible to lose 32% over 1 year especially if it is somehow equity linked) or over its lifetime (may be 2008) it lost a goodly chunck of its value ...