There are a number of problems with your analyisis..
You are treating the expense ratio as if it is a sales fee. It is annual fee that all funds charge and is comprised of all fees incurred by the fund and it is deducted from the AUM before calculating the NAV of the fund which is the price that you get if you sell.
The expense ratio is expressed as a ...
So this may clear a few things up:
"yield" indicates how much the mutual fund pays out in dividends/capital gains/etc. These have zero net effect from a wealth standpoint, meaning that the value you get in cash is deducted from the price of the fund. If you reinvest dividends automatically then these are of no consequence to you - you'll have more units ...
You need not be a taxpayer to invest in ELSS. Anyone can invest. A taxpayer gets tax deduction benefits.
If you have invested more than what you plan, best is to stop the SIP and further investments.
It's opinion based. You have to decide. Generally close ended funds perform better when stock markets are volatile as there is no redemption pressure on fund ...
these kind of bonds gets higher principal if short rate moves up.
True, but the rate is still fixed for a period of time (until the next reset date), so they do lose value in the short term if interest rates rise. So a rise in interest rates would still lower the value of an FRN fund but not nearly as much as a fund of fixed-rate bonds.
Per your link, brokers make some securities non-marginable to mitigate risks. These include recent IPOs, penny stocks, over-the-counter bulletin board stocks, leveraged ETFs and very volatile stocks.
Some brokers set even more restrictive requirements than the Reg T minimum because they want to dissuade trading.
For example, prior to abolishing ...
As @BenVoigt alluded to in the comments, you need to look at the portfolio for the fund in question. VFIFX specifically has the following breakdown of funds:
Total US Stock Market (VTSMX) - 54.4%
Total International Stock (VGTSX) - 35.6%
US and International Bonds - 10%
The 10% allocation to bonds would cause a slight lag in the growth of VFIFX compared to ...
It seems like this is an example of Dual Beta:
In investing, dual-beta is a concept that states that a regular, market beta can be divided into downside beta and upside beta.
Essentially the beta (and intercepts) are calculated separately for up periods and down periods. So in your case, you seem to have an upside beta of slightly more than one but a ...
That sounds like β.
In finance, the beta (β or beta coefficient) of an investment is a measure of the risk arising from exposure to general market movements as opposed to idiosyncratic factors.
A beta greater than 1 generally means that the asset both is volatile and tends to move up and down with the ...
Calculating SIP is very easy. You can visit my site http://easysipcalculator.com/ and enter the required details like monthly investment, no of years you are going to invest and what is the expected return rate.
Home page - enter the details
Then click on calculate,
You will get the projection of return and detailed summary report.
Projected return vs ...