We bought a vacation home in the UK in 2006 for 182000 pounds, including purchase price, closing costs and improvements, when the pound was stronger ($1.8/pound), and wired $327000 directly to the UK solicitor.
If we sell the vacation home in 2018 for 182000 pounds, when the rate is $1.3/pound, place the funds into a UK interest-bearing account for several years until the pound improves to $1.5/pound, and return the funds to the US at that time, do we calculate the gain/loss on currency exchange as (182000 x $1.5/pound) - (182000 x $1.8) = $273000 - $327000 for a loss of $54000, or as (182000 x $1.5/pound) - (182000 x $1.3/pound) = $273000 - $237000 for a gain of $36000? In the first case we use the exchange rate of $1.8/pound when we first changed dollars into pounds in 2006. In the second case we use the rate of $1.3/pound when we opened the interest-bearing account in 2018.