In the United States, if one of your securities gets sold off that you didn't want sold off, and your financial advisor says he's not the one who did it, but it was in fact one of his underlings, is it possible that he's telling the truth?
It seems to me that he would need to have given the order for them to have done it, but if someone could let me know about whether it is possible without him giving the order, and perhaps provide links to something where I could learn more about it, I would be very much appreciative.