4

About 9 years ago, I co-signed a loan for a mortgage with a family friend. I basically was just a co-signer, I didn't contribute to the down payment or any of the monthly mortgage payments.

Since then, my co-signer had passed away but his widow and kids still live in the house. Now, I want to take my name out of the deed of the house and the mortgage and completely give everything back to the widow and the kids. The widow and kids are offering to buy me out of the mortgage. It's just so that they can refinance the house and have everything under their names and remove me completely.

I'm totally OK with this and not seeking any monetary amount at all. However, if they buy me out, does that mean I'm technically "making money" from them and have to pay extra taxes for having sold a house?

Thank you!

Improve this question
3
  • 2
    Which country? But yes most likely. Depending on how your local legislation is, if they can actually buy your share for less than market value (or no value?) maybe you can avoid it.
    – ssn
    Jan 16, 2018 at 9:32
  • 12
    Did you just co-sign the loan [mortgage] or your name is in the title deed of the house?
    – Dheer
    Jan 16, 2018 at 10:23
  • 3
    If you haven't put any money in, why are they giving you any money? If you want to give it to them you should just find a way to get yourself off both the deed and the mortgage.
    – Kevin
    Jan 16, 2018 at 18:40

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
4

In the US, you'll have to report any profit on selling the house as income (capital gain). The house was not your residence, so gains on it are not excluded (part of gains on sale of primary residence is protected). If you have zero invested, and you're paid zero when you are removed from the mortgage, then there's no profit, no gain, and nothing to tax.

(If not in the US, I'll delete the answer.)

Improve this answer
1
  • Note that it is not currently clear that the OP actually owns a portion of the house itself, s/he may only have been involved in co-signing the mortgage. This may change the determination of income here [may not be capital gains, I'm not sure; specifics would be important].
    – Grade 'Eh' Bacon
    Jan 19, 2018 at 13:25

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .