I have what I think is an easy question, but I can't find the answer to it either here or through my credit card company's website.
I have an available credit of some amount, let's say $5000. If two separate charges of $3000 go on that credit card, then I will be above my total credit. Theoretically this is bad, but I'm not entirely sure what that means.
My actual question has to do with these charges as they're pending, however. When these charges first go on my card, they are pending for a few days. 1) If, during those few days, I pay off $3000 on my credit card, can I still get in trouble for having had >$5000 in pending charges? 2) If I pay off the $3000 during this period, but this transfer is still pending when both charges go through and are no longer pending, what happens? 3) How about when only one charge goes through before my transfer?
Update - Daniel's answer made sense to me. As to what actually happened: my payment went through several days before the incoming charges went through (so I had a temporary balance of -$3000 on my card) even though both charges were pending before my payment. Even though I had paid off $3k when both charges were pending, I had an available credit of $0, and so couldn't use my credit card for anything else. No extra fees, no long-lasting issues, just a tied-down credit card for several days.