If I pay my credit card bill before the company reports it, will they always report zero? [duplicate]

Question

If I spend 20 and pay back that 20 instantly after using it, will the credit card company state that I spent 20 and paid 20 back (to the bureaus), if I paid that amount before they reported it?

Example: they report on day 20; I spend and pay back on the 19th; on day 20 they report "nothing" since, if I pay back what I owe, my credit goes back to max and my balance would be 0.

I'm just saying because having zero is bad according to this (check the lower part of the answer).

If having zero is bad, I would need to know at what point I should pay before the due date, but after the credit activity has taken place. I would ask the company, but there's no simple way to word this.

It would be very pointless to use the credit and pay it back instantly if they company just reports "0" to the bureaus because that is not the best thing for my credit score. Now, I'm not saying it's smart to skip payment due dates, but it seems nearly as dumb to pay too quickly if the company then says you're using no credit to the bureaus which means you never get a higher credit score despite using the credit and paying it off. The credit card company in question is Capital One.

Answer 1

I don't know why people who are new to debt seem to obsess about maintaining zero balance. If you continuously pay your balance before the due date there's no interest charge. You want to avoid paying interest and fees. Keep your utilization to a reasonable level and make your payments on time.

Separately, I think you're misreading the chart in the post you cite. Zero credit utilization can also be the score of someone with no current credit. As an unknown you're more risky than a known with a reasonable utilization.