I'd like to know whether a person still own any money to a bank if his house ended up foreclosed?
From what I found out it says that yes and the borrower owns the difference that the bank sold the property for. If this is true is there a way to avoid this and prevent a bank to sell the house for less?
It could be a good business for a bank. Sell it to someone they know for $1 and have the borrower to pay the full price still.
Is the bankruptcy the answer? If so how one can turn to a bankruptcy status?
The market target Ohio, USA