This question asks whether stock prices really go down by the amount of the dividend on the day you need to own it to receive the dividend (ex-date). It has two answers:
- The accepted answer explains theoretically why it should happen. However as we know, because something should happen in economics doesn't mean it does.
- The second answer rather offhandedly gives you a Google search term to use to confirm it yourself. I used the search term and did not find evidence to back up the assertion.
Are there actual studies that show that this is the case, or is it something that is assumed to be true?
N.B If you want to post answers consisting of explanations of why it should be true, or offer search terms, feel free to add them to the other question.