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This question already has an answer here:

This is a hypothetical situation, I'm not actually in this position. I'm also an amateur with this, so correct me if I make any mistakes.

Let's say a stock is $100. You buy $4,000 worth of $0.50 call options with a strike price of $102. This is 8,000 options.

Now let's say the price of the stock goes up $5. You want to exercise your options to get a profit of $20,000. This means you have to pay $816,000 to buy your stock at the strike price. What does someone do if they don't have $816,000? It's an interesting situation because they don't have the money, but they are guaranteed to make a profit if they did.

marked as duplicate by JTP - Apologise to Monica Oct 21 '15 at 15:44

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    You sell the option itself. money.stackexchange.com/q/48934/24920 The option's price isn't set in stone at $0.50. The call option's price increases as the stock price increases. P.S. 1 Option contract has rights for 100 shares. – base64 Oct 21 '15 at 15:06
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The fact that the option is deep in the money will be reflected in the market price of the option so you can just sell it at a profit. If there's a (n almost) guaranteed profit to be had, however, you can always find someone who will lend you the money to cover the exercise... they'll charge you interest, however!

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