From my understanding, F1/F2 P/E is calculated using forward estimated EPS.
And It seems to be impossible to predict future price (otherwise everyone just follow the Est. price)
However, if it's using current price as numerator, it seems impractical
because share price will propably move a lot and the F1 P/E will not be accurate anyway six months later, assuming EPS is correctly predicted.
So I'm a bit confused about interpreting forward P/E and hopefully get some clarification, thanks.