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I was looking at FSCSX and noticed that it owns some Google Class A shares. These shares get 1 vote each (Yeah I know Google voting shares cant really influence anything, lets ignore that). Who actually gets the vote in this case? Would it be me, or the mutual fund owner?

  • The fund managers, I think, simply because the bookkeeping to try to assign ownership of specific fractional shares would be expensive. – keshlam Sep 3 '14 at 16:07
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You will not get a vote on any issues of the underlying stock. The mutual fund owner/manager will do the voting.

In 2004, the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) required that fund companies disclose proxy votes, voting guidelines and conflicts of interest in the voting process. All funds must make these disclosures to the SEC through an N-PX filing, which must either be available to shareholders on the fund company's websites or upon request by telephone. You can also find your fund's N-PX filing on the SEC website. -- http://www.investopedia.com/articles/mutualfund/08/acting-in-interest.asp

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  • The exception is company shares within the 401K program. I have always been given a proxy vote. That has not been the case for the underlying stocks for a mutual fund. – mhoran_psprep Sep 3 '14 at 16:22
  • 401k is more akin to an IRA than a mutual fund - the shares you own are segregated from those that others own, and held in your name. In a mutual fund, the shares the fund owns are all in one account and not segregated. – dpassage Sep 4 '14 at 0:25

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