What is the rationale for doctors to intentionally overcharge for services, when the doctor (or his service) already know the allowable charge for each procedure. For example, a pathology exam of tissue (code 88305) is charged at 227.60 but the doctor (and his billing service) know in advance that private insurance and/or Medicare will only allow a total of approximately 73.00 to be paid for that service.
- I've been assured by physicians that if the patient has no insurance, they will gladly accept 73.00 in cash.
Is there some objective (by a doctor) to charge three times as much as he knows that he will accept?
ETA: To be fair, approximately 80% of todays practicing physicians are simply employees of a corporate entity, so it's not exactly "the doctors" that are charging multiples of allowable reimbursement. It's mainly the corporate owners. This question is simplified if the focus is on physician's charges rather than adding the complexity of hospital charges.