Say, as individuals, you are receiving money for a jointly owned asset, the proceeds of which you intend to split 50/50. The buyer wants a single account to send the money to.
Each of the sellers has a very different tax position. Neither of you has any wish to "optimise" the tax position by transferring all the money to the person who would pay least tax. But equally, they don't want to overpay by it all going to the other party. They want to pay as if it had been jointly, 50:50 owned.
The plan was to immediately transfer half to the one party once the whole amount has been received by the other.
Would tax authorities likely understand this as a single event for tax purposes, or would they be slightly more (trying to find a nice word...) "fastidious" about it all, and see each money movement as something with its own tax implications?