I am in full time employment in the UK (and have no other sources of income).

My wife does not currently work (since having children). She will shortly be registering as self-employed/sole-trader and will be selling products online (e.g., on platforms such as eBay and Amazon).

Is it permitted/legal for my wife to use the money from my income and/or my personal credit card to purchase products and materials that she will then sell online for her business? (as like many people we consider money I earn from my full time employment our money and I am happy for that to happen).

Is this a perfectly legal way to fund her business purchases and/or does this have any tax related implications?

Thanks for your help.

  • I was about to make an answer on this but there are too many issues of which I am not perfectly familiar to be concrete. Instead I point you here: rossmartin.co.uk/index.php/private-client-a-estate-planning/… which seems to indicate that 1/2 your marital assets are by default assumed beneficially owned by each of you. This to me implies that your wife has the right to use 1/2 those assets for her business, and barring any other considerations, if she needed say 80% of the funds for the business then you might want to write out terms of a loan between you. Apr 29, 2022 at 16:07
  • I suggest you keep digging until you find something more directly relevant to your consideration published by HMRC or a UK tax firm, there's still some grey area here in my eye. Apr 29, 2022 at 16:08


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