Deducing purchasing power equivalent salaries under tax between two countries

Question

I am trying to figure out how to compute the equivalent salary in a country B given a salary in a country A by taking into account purchasing power parity and tax rates in both countries. The computation I arrived at is the following, but I am not 100% confident that it is correct to do it this way:

Let s_A be the current salary in country A, with a tax rate of t_A. Let e be the exchange rate from A to B. Let the purchasing power factor between A and B be p (1 of A's currency in A buys you g goods, while 1 of A's currency after basic exchange rate conversion buys you p times g in B).

Given these numbers:

1. Determine net pay n_A after tax in country A:
   • n_A = s_A - (s_A * t_A).
2. Determine corresponding amount of money m_B in currency of country B through simple exchange rate.
   • m_B = n_A * e
3. Determine amount of money m_B' in currency of country B that has the same purchasing power in B as n_A has in A.
   • m_B' = m_B + m_B * p
4. Find amount s_B of salary in currency of B that yields m_B' after applying the correct tax according to the laws in B.

Example. Say we have a salary of 100,000 EUR per annum in Germany, and we want to know the corresponding relative salary in Norway. I follow the algorithm from above:

1. 100,000 EUR salary in GER after tax = 57,000 EUR due to 43% tax rate
2. 57,000 EUR = 581,400 NOK base exchange rate
3. 57,000 EUR in GER purchasing power = 581,400 NOK + (581,400 NOK * 24%) = 720,100 NOK in NO purchasing power since a Euro only has 76% of its purchasing power in Norway.
4. 720,100 NOK requires 1,050,000 NOK salary due to 33.4% tax rate

Hence, the equivalent relative salary for a 100,000 EUR salary in Germany would be a salary of 1,050,000 NOK in Norway.

Is this calculation valid?