This question is about US mortgages.
I was talking to a realtor who told me that buying a single-family home now as owner-occupied would prevent me from applying for an owner-occupied mortgage for a multifamily house with a a lower down payment and suggested doing it the other way round: multi-family then single family if both are owner-occupied.
Her take is that I would not be able to put a low down-payment but instead would need to put down
25% for the 2nd place (a multi-family home) even if I lived in the single-family home for at least a year as required for owner-occupied mortgages.
Is this true? I couldn't find a source that mentions this underwriting process.