For example, GATX has an institutional ownership of 103.42 %. This does not make sense to me, as an ownsership by definition should not be more 100%. Could anybody help me understand what it is more than 100% in this case? Is there any error in the data on nasdaq for this case?

This question should not be closed. The answer existing is not definitive. It is just a guess. I will need a way to definitively determine why is it so at least for the example ticker mentioned.

EDIT: I have explained why the question should not be closed. But it still says the original problem of close is not resolved. Please be specific on what has not be resolved as that question is not the same as mine, for my question, it will need to be definitely answered for the case of GATX. But the linked question is not.

Moderator: Please comment below and be specific on what needs to be edit. Don't just say it needs to be edited without specifying the details.


The most straightforward explanation is that non-institutional investors have a net short position. Thus, the institutions own some of the same shares twice, having lent them and then purchased them again.

  • How to calculate the exact institutional ownership percentage then? Is there a way to know which one reported is short and which one is long? Oct 25 at 3:50
  • @user15482691 sounds like the percentage is 103.42%. What do you mean "which one is short"?
    – user253751
    Oct 25 at 8:48
  • 1
    @user253751 -- shares are interchangeable. Asking which one is short is like asking which dollars in the bank are yours. There's no separate pile of bills that belong to you, and there's no separate pile of shares that are "short". Oct 25 at 13:21
  • @PeteBecker yes hence my question
    – user253751
    Oct 25 at 13:46
  • The problem is that when an institute report the stocks that they own, isn't that some are borrowed and some are purchased? If this info is reported, then you can distinguish which one is short and which one is long. Oct 26 at 13:27

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