For example, GATX has an institutional ownership of 103.42 %. This does not make sense to me, as an ownsership by definition should not be more 100%. Could anybody help me understand what it is more than 100% in this case? Is there any error in the data on nasdaq for this case?
This question should not be closed. The answer existing is not definitive. It is just a guess. I will need a way to definitively determine why is it so at least for the example ticker mentioned.
EDIT: I have explained why the question should not be closed. But it still says the original problem of close is not resolved. Please be specific on what has not be resolved as that question is not the same as mine, for my question, it will need to be definitely answered for the case of GATX. But the linked question is not.
Moderator: Please comment below and be specific on what needs to be edit. Don't just say it needs to be edited without specifying the details.