Suppose a couple is buying a house in the UK. One partner is a first time buyer, another owns a share of property overseas with value less than £40,000 (and nothing else). Suppose they are buying a house for £400,000. What then will be the amount of Stamp Duty?

1 Answer 1


The UK government has published guidance notes on Stamp Duty that answer these questions and more. That document makes it clear that.

  • To count as a first time buyer you must not have ever owned any residential property anywhere in the world before and you must be buying the property as your main residence.

  • If you're buying the property jointly and one of you does not qualify for first time buyer status then neither of you can get the first time buyer discount.

  • 1
    Agreed. The fact that the property is overseas, and that the person only owns a part of it - even if they only owned £1 worth of it - makes no difference at all, it prevents you as a couple from qualifying for first time buyer discount.
    – Vicky
    Oct 22, 2021 at 6:23
  • Robert, @Vicky, many thanks! I wonder, would it be possible in such case for one partner to buy the property and qualify for a first time buyer?
    – aglearner
    Oct 22, 2021 at 7:17
  • Thanks Robert! I wonder, in such situation, if only one partner applies for the mortgage (the one who doesn't own a property), can the money for the other partner be used in the deposit?
    – aglearner
    Oct 22, 2021 at 7:56
  • I was about to suggest that you asked that as a separate follow up question, then I found money.stackexchange.com/questions/145851/… - linking for other readers' benefit.
    – Vicky
    Oct 22, 2021 at 19:01

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