I currently have 1 BTC left. I originally had many more.
Over the years, I have spent a total of $14,648 USD to buy Bitcoin every now and then.
According to Swedish tax rules, I have to pay 30% on the profits when selling Bitcoin for fiat.
Does this mean that, if I sell Bitcoin for fiat amounting to exactly $14,648 USD, that will mean $0 "profits", since it's the exact amount that I've spent in fiat to buy Bitcoin, meaning I have to pay $0 in taxes this time?
Of course, from that moment on, I have to pay 30% on the total sum I "take out" in fiat from my remaining Bitcoin.
Have I understood this correctly? Is this not completely reasonable and fair? I could really use $14,648 USD right now, and it would actually be sort of a "relief" in a way to know that from that point on (assuming no further Bitcoin purchases), I have to pay 30% on the total amount and I don't have to think about how much the "profits" are.
To make it clear, I have never once in all these years sold any Bitcoin. I bought most of them when they were very cheap, then lost tons of them, then bought small amounts relatively recently. The point is that it's a big mess of purchases and lost coins, so I'm trying to clear things up by first "taking out" the mentioned sum which is all the fiat money I have spent over the years to buy Bitcoin. If I didn't do this, it would be very unclear how I should calculate the "profits" each time I sell some amount of Bitcoin.
If I ever had to explain this, and I told the "IRS" (Skatteverket) exactly this information, they would not throw me in jail or fine me or anything, would they?
Once again, I want to make it clear that this is a one-time thing, largely to just "reset" the profits rather than me requiring that exact amount right now. The point is mostly to make future Bitcoin sales easier to calculate, since I will simply be giving 30% of the sum I get in fiat to the vultures at Skatteverket.