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When looking at the income statement of Booking Holdings (https://finance.yahoo.com/quote/BKNG/financials/), we see that they had a cost of revenue (likely marketing IMO) in the years 2016 and 2017.

However, in later years they incurred no more such costs. How is that possible and what accounting principle did they use for that?

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Sorry, I found it in the footnotes:

There was a change in accounting standards on January 1st, 2018, hence Booking Holdings no longer reports Cost of Revenue but they are instead included in the Operating Expense.

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