I have always had a curiosity since a very long time about ordinary people who become very rich (millionaires, billionaires..). But I have a feeling that this is going to be a silly question, so please pardon me if it is too silly, I am here just to learn about a simple thing.
How do people who become billionaires get such a stake (share) in their company that make them very rich? Consider Jeff Bezos. He was just like anyone else (financially). He was nowhere near the category of even millionaires I guess. But he had a powerful idea about an everything online store that went on to become the most popular thing. But he certainly did not have so much money to open up facilities etc. to fund his brilliant idea. He had to utilise money from investors. And the investors, hence, got the majority share in the company (like 95% or so) and the remaining an be considered to be possessed by Jeff Bezos (who had little money to contribute in it). This way, if Amazon gets successful, the person who would profit the most will be that investor(s) who invested in Jeff Bezos' idea. How did Jeff Bezos become the richest person then? Why not that/those investor(s) who initially funded his project?
So the question is: Is having a brilliant idea enough to claim the majority share of a company even though the creator has nothing in their own pockets? If an investor funds a project fully, does that mean he will own the majority of the share (say 95% of the profits)?
How does all this work? How do people who have nothing in their pocket go on to become the richest people just by a single idea? As far as I know, only money can generate more money. If you have money, you can invest, own the majority shares, and become even more super-rich if the project (like Amazon) thrives. But if you just have an idea, not money, how could you go on to become the richest person? How does all this work?
Thank you and kind regards.