I'm not from the US, and the banking system there is vastly different to how most other countries operate. So, I'm a little confused about how the FDIC apportions its premiums (the deposit insurance premiums banks are expected to pay to protect their depositors and the integrity of the financial system). I've heard that the US has over 8000 banks (which is an insanely large number compared to the number of banks in countries I've lived in), and from my understanding, these banks range from little local banks through to the national giants raking in billions, so how does the FDIC decide how much each bank pays? I was reading an article today about the 2008 GFC, and it said the FDIC expected banks to fork out an additional $15 billion in premiums in 2009 to replenish its funds. And I thought holy hell, how did the banks afford to pay that when they were already financially stressed? And how much were the little guys expected to pay - were these premiums apportioned according to the banks' earnings? Given US banks exist to make a profit (except the non-profits), wouldn't they just pass these costs onto their customers by charging higher fees and offering lower savings account returns? So at the end of the day, the US people would end up paying for this, right?
Sorry, I hope this question isn't too complicated or rubs salt into wounds about the way banks behaved during the GFC.