Company B was bought by company A.
A few years after company B was sued for things it did before its acquisition.
Is company A always responsible for all the fines and damaged caused by the misconduct?
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If A acquired 100% of B, then the answer is probably "yes".
However, I could envision scenarios where B splits into two companies (B1 and B2, with B1) before the acquisition, with B1 agreeing to accept all responsibility for problems with X, Y and Z.
Then A acquires B2.
If A is much bigger and wealthier than B1, then the plaintiffs might (probably will) sue A as well as B1. A, then, would argue that they should be dismissed from the lawsuit. It may of may not work.