I've been provided with a statement of account which claims I owe an overdue amount rather than the actual amount (which I would have been charged if I had paid the account on time). The problem is that I did not receive a bill prior to the overdue date which would have allowed me to settle the account without the additional overdue charge. Can I legally be charged this overdue fee if I was not provided with the information to pay the actual amount sooner?

  • where you given anything that showed how much was owed at the start of the transaction? – mhoran_psprep Jun 14 '19 at 16:33
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    Questions about law should specify the location. – Chris W. Rea Jun 14 '19 at 17:03

It certainly depends on your country, which you didn't specify.

Further it depends on the source of this due amount, and the contract around it - contracts can make the respective amounts due without explicit billing. For such contracts, (claiming to) not having gotten a 'reminder' bill is no excuse for not paying in time.
For example, HOA (home owner association) dues are often defined to be due on the first of the year, and they are due even if you never got a bill; or monthly fixed charges like internet can be defined that way. Also, rent is typically due every month, without getting a bill.
Without knowing the details, nobody can say if your contract was such or not.

On the other hand, most suppliers are receptive if you tell them that you haven't gotten an invoice, and waive extra fees and send you a new copy - just contact them and explain your situation.

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