I'm not going to repeat everything in the question or my answer. The question had a simple answer: technically Maybe but as a practical matter, No.
However, in arriving at this conclusion, I think I have found a way around the wash sale rule. According to J.K.Lasser Your Income Tax 2018, page 558 (hard copy):
Loss on the sale of part of a stock lot bought less than 30 days ago:
If you buy stock and then, within 30 days, sell some of those shares, a loss on the sale is deductible; the wash sale disallowance rule does not apply.
....the wash sale rule does not apply to a loss sustained in a bone fide sale made to reduce your market position.
Thus, if the buyer (TB) bought 2,000 shares of Stock X and then sold 1,000 shares of Stock X at a loss less than 30 days later, with no repurchase within the time limit, TB could deduct the loss on the 1,000 shares. (The motivation for this could be, for example, that TB wanted a long-term position in the stock, but also wanted to speculate in the short term on a blip in the stock, and wanted to be able to get out quickly with a deduction if the blip he expected did not happen.)
However, if TB bought 1,000 shares of Stock X on D-day and then bought 1,000 shares on D-Day + N (where N is less than 30), and then sold 1,000 shares at a loss on D-Day + M (where M is more than N, but less than 30), then TB could not deduct the loss on the 1,000 shares.
Is this correct? The effect on the holdings in TB's portfolio is the same in both cases, although the values of Stock X may be different.
The first case looks like it is made to reduce your market position, but has the effect, intended or not, of working around the wash sale rule.