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I own a property that I purchased from the previous owner. It is a 75-year deed with 35 years remaining. After 35 years, ownership reverts to the original landowner.

I don't plan to sell for another 10-15 years. However, when the time comes, how would I factor in the time constraint? Since there is so much time remaining, I didn't really consider it when I purchased.

For a typical deed with permanent ownership, I'd just look at other comparable properties to get an idea of sale price and combine that with an appraisal. I can still have the property appraised but I don't know what sort of formula I should apply to take the finite lifetime of the property into account.

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    Really, "I own" and "I purchased" are both inaccurate. Regardless of how the sale was structured, its effect is more like a lease. – Ben Voigt Mar 19 at 15:48
  • Hope you didn't pay too much for it. I don't know how an economist would do it, but unless you're planning to somehow get money out of it (farming?) I expect I'd just consider it a pre-paid rental. If comparable rentals are $1k/mo, 35 years would be $420k (scale appropriately). In 10–15 years that'd be down to about $250–300k. Maybe a bit more as rents tend to rise. – Kevin Mar 19 at 17:31

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