Taking into account reverse splits, it couldn't have been the $173,000,000 a share. Aren't past prices adjusted as the different X's (example 20x) what it "actually was"? Youd have to compute backwards right? How much was the highest price if you take into account the splits? It couldn't possibly be $173,000,000, that's impossible! The computation would have to reduce with each of the splits backward like they escalated forward. In other words, don't you consider a split the other way, to determine what the price was before the split? Does that make sense? Anybody get what I am asking?
Note: I did the math from $173,000,000.00 and the results was .02c That can't be right either. If anyone can answer this, I will name them, "reverse split stock computing wizard.