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How will going from 75% Credit Utilization to 0% Credit Utilization affect my credit score?

I've read in a few places some statistics to indicate that people with zero CC balance have a lower average credit score than someone who maintains a low, yet nonzero, balance. What is the mechanism of this, if it is actually a real effect? Another possibility could be that those with zero balances don't use credit and don't have a significant credit history, leading to a lower score.

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marked as duplicate by JoeTaxpayer, littleadv, Victor, JohnFx, Dheer Nov 21 '12 at 1:00

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That Credit Karma graph is one of the places that I was referring to. The question is, WHY would it cause a lower credit score to have 0% CC balance, if it even occurs at all? –  Bigbio2002 Nov 20 '12 at 21:36
    
I answered both questions, although, I admit, the "why" is not so simple. I believe that each factor involved in creating the score was correlated to default rates, and therefore, the 0% was deemed riskier than the range of 1%-19%. –  JoeTaxpayer Nov 21 '12 at 1:57
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I can't swear that it's real but one of those pseudo-credit scores you find online considered it a ding on my credit that my utilization was 0%. They were being stupid about it, though--it's not actually 0%, just less than 1%.

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